A Question Regarding 1 Timothy 2:5

A question has been raised:

If Jesus is not now a man, then why was this written long after his death, burial, resurrection, and ascension?

1 Tim 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, THE MAN Christ Jesus;

The problem is that one needs to read the entire sentence, which continues into verse 6:

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men,  the man Christ Jesus, 1 Timothy 2:6 who gave himself as a ransom for all; the testimony in its own times

Paul was saying that it was the “man” Jesus who gave himself as an offsetting price – ransom. The offsetting price had to be a sinless man to correspond to Adam before Adam sinned. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22) Having living himself as a man in sacrifice to his God (Ephesians 5:2), he is no longer a man. If he is still a man, then he has not given himself in sacrifice, or else he has taken back what he had given. Either way, it would leave us without an  atoning sacrifice for sin, would annul the purpose for Jesus’ coming in the flesh, that is, to give his flesh for the life of the world. (John 6:51; 1 John 1:2; 4:2,3,10) Jesus is no longer in the days of his flesh. (Hebrews 5:7) If he is, then he is still a little lower than the angels, and there has been no offering for our sin. — Hebrews 2:9.

See:

The Man Jesus – Still A Man? – 1 Timothy 2:5

Jesus Died a Human Being – Raised a Spirit Being

Definition of Jesus – Has the Son of God Always Existed?

The statement is made that the Son of God has always existed, but that Jesus has not always existed. The claim, in effect, is that Jesus is only the Son of God in the flesh; that the Son of God is not “Jesus” aside from the flesh. Thus, it is claimed that Jesus is for all eternity still a human being. There are several errors in this line of reasoning that are false and contrary to scripture. Indeed, such a teaching nullifies the basis of the atonement.  Of course, Jesus had only been given the name “Jesus” when he came into the world of mankind that had been made through him. This does not mean that Jesus did not exist before his becoming a man, nor does it mean that Jesus ceased to exist since he is no longer in the days of his flesh. — Hebrews 5:7.

The Son of God has not always existed; only the God of whom he is the Son has always existed. The very term “son” denotes that he was brought forth into existence, and thus at some point he did not exist.

John 1 is cited as proof that the Son of God has always existed. In reality, however, such a thought has to be imagined in the imaginations of men, assumed, added to, and read into, what is stated in John 1. The fact that the Logos of God is spoken of as already in existence at the beginning spoken of in John 1:1 does not mean that Logos had always been in existence. One needs to consider what is meant by “the beginning” as well as what is meant the “panta”  — all — that was brought forth into existence by means of the firstborn creature.

See our studies on this at:
http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=200

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=300

http://defending.reslight.net/?p=10

The other matter of grave importance is the claim that Jesus is still  human being, else he would not be Jesus. This is actually sophistry, since there is nothing at all in the scriptures to support such a claim. If, however, Jesus is still a human being, a little lower than the angels, then Jesus has not given up his human flesh, soul, body, life for all eternity to pay the redemptive price for sin, and thus the very basis of the atonement is nullified.

http://atonement.reslight.net

As we have shown in earlier studies, Jesus is no longer in the days of his flesh, he was put to death in the flesh and made alive in the spirit. This does not in any way mean that Jesus had to cease being Jesus simply because he is now a spirit being, higher than the angels, and no longer a human being, lower than than the angels. Jesus, although he did not carry the name of Jesus, was still the same person before he became flesh. It was Jesus who spoke of his existence with his God and Father, the only true God, before the world of mankind was made. (John 17:3,5) Thus, Jesus, although he did not yet have the name Jesus, was in existence with the glory of a celestial, not a terrestrial body (1 Corinthians 15:40), before the world of mankind was made. It was Jesus who said that he was to return to where he was before. Thus, it was Jesus — although he did not bear the name Jesus at that time — who was in the “where” to which he was to return. (John 6:62) Likewise, even though Jesus is no longer flesh, no longer a human being, and has been exalted again with the celestial glory, above the angels, he is still Jesus, and he is no longer of the terrestrial glory of a human being.

See our earlier studies at:

http://atonement.reslight.net/?p=1

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=218

http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=215

Definition of Jesus — His Two Glories

Some claim that John 1 and Colossians 1 defines Jesus as both fully God (as in Almighty God) and also as fully man. It is further claimed that the true definition of “Jesus” is “the Son of God in the flesh.” It is then assumed, based on this definition, that if Jesus is still alive, then he must also still be “in the flesh.” However, when we examine these scriptures, we find that there is nothing either in John 1 or Colossians 1 that justifies the conclusion that Jesus ever was, is now, or ever will be, the only true God (the Supreme Being, the only Most High). Nor do we see anything that gives us a definition that Jesus is now the “Son of God in the flesh.”

The Bible reveals that Jesus has had two different general forms of glory, but he did not have both at the same time. Before Jesus became a man, he spoke of a glory that he had with the only true God before the world (the world that was made through him; the world that he came into, the world that did not recognize him — John 17:1,3,5) was made. (John 1:3,10) Jesus prayed that he again have the glory that had with the only true God, so while he was in the days of his flesh, Jesus did not have that glory. If he did have that glory while in the days of his flesh, then why would he ask the only true God (John 17:1,3) to give that glory to him again? — John 17:5.

Paul spoke of the two general kinds of glory, when he was answering the question about the kind of body with which the dead are raised. He said: “There are also celestial [in the heavens] bodies, and terrestrial [in the earth] bodies; but the glory of the celestial differs from that of the terrestrial.” — 1 Corinthians 15:40.

Jesus, before he became a man, Jesus had the celestial glory, but he did not have the terrestrial glory. Thus John writes: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [Ton Theon], and the Word was God [Theos, in this usage, more properly should be rendered "mighty," in the sense of mightiness, not as "God" whom the Word was with]. The same was in the beginning with God [Ton Theon].”  (John 1:1,2) John was definitely not telling us that Jesus was “God” whom Jesus was with, but John is telling us of a special mightiness that Jesus had with the only true God before the world of mankind was made. — John 1:10; 17:3,5.

The title “Word,” designates Jesus as the Word of God, as shown in Revelation 19:13. John, in using the word “THEOS” of Jesus, was not making the claim that Jesus “was” the only true God whom Jesus was said he was with. (John 17:1,3,5) Many scholars say that THEOS here is speaking qualitatively. Forms of THEOS in the New Testament correspond with forms of the Hebrew word EL in the Old Testament. In the Old Testament, when forms of the Hebrew word EL were used “qualitatively,” they could be used of other persons and things than Yahweh in the sense of might, power, strength.

We will begin by showing this usage with John 10:34,35, where Jesus quotes and refers to  Psalms 82:1,6, where the Psalmist uses both forms of the Hebrew word EL and ELOHIM, and thus these words are applied the sons of the Most High, the sons to whom the Logos came (as Jesus explained). In John 10:34,35, the word ELOHIM is rendered as THEOI, the plural of THEOS. According the King James Version, God [ELOHIM] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [EL]. (Psalm 82:1) In reference to the sons of the Most High, the KJV renders the term EL as “the mighty.” Applying this scriptural principle to THEOS in John 1:1, we would likewise have “the Logos was mighty.”

Additionally, this is not the only place that the KJV renders forms of the words EL (Strong’s Hebrew #410)  and ELOHIM (Strong’s Hebrew #430) with terms showing mightiness or strength. Here are a few scriptures: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). The point is the King James translators, in all these verses, did not render the word for deity/divinity [EL] as “God” or as “god”, but with terms of might, strength, great, power and might. Likewise, since John is definitely not stating that the Word was the God that the Word was with, the most directly scriptural understanding of John 1:1c should be: “the Word was mighty.”

All of the spirit beings, by “nature” of the superior might given to them by the Almighty are scripturally designated as el or elohim, and thus can be spoken of as divine — mighty — in being. — Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:9; also Psalm 50:1 and 96:4 could be speaking of angels as elohim); 45:6,7; Isaiah 9:6,7; John 1:1,2; Acts 2:33; 5:31; Ephesians 1:20,22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2-4,8; 1 Peter 1:21; 3:22.

The scriptural conclusion is that since John is definitely not saying that the Word “was” (past tense) the only true God, then he is speaking of THEOS as a quality, that is, of the might, power, the glory that he “was” but was not while he was in the days of his flesh. Whatever is meant by THEOS in John 1:1c expresses what the LOGOS “was” before he became flesh, not while he “was” in the days of his flesh. – Hebrews 5:7

See the studies on John 1:1,2 at:
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=435.0
http://godandson.reslight.net/john-1.html

When Jesus became a man, he no longer had the glory of the celestial, but he became fully a man, crowned with the glory a little lower than the angels. (Hebrews 2:9) As already, shown, while in the days of his flesh, Jesus did not have his former glory. (John 17:5) But he did possess the glory of a human, a glory that he maintained without spot or blemish, since he never sinned, and thus never fell short of the glory of his God and Father. (Romans 3:23) According to the scriptures, all mankind are dying because of Adam’s sin. (1 Corinthians 15:21,22; Romans 5:12-19) Yet Jesus never sinned. Does this mean that Jesus was not a man? Common evidence of the scriptures show that Jesus is not included in the “all” being spoken, since the manner in which he came into this world was not as a result of uniting a man’s sperm with the ovum of a woman. Hebrews 10:5 lets us know that his body was specially prepared by God Himself. He was not of dying race in Adam. (Romans 5:115-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22) Thus, his body was not a dying body, but it was a body having sinless life,  a body with the possibility of living forever, as Adam had before Adam sinned. John, in speaking in the past, while Jesus was flesh, said that: “In him was life.” (John 1:4) Jesus could not give dying flesh for mankind, but he could give living flesh (flesh not under condemnation of death), which he spoke of symbolically as “living bread.” (John 6:51) Jesus, therefore, offering his life, was offering the life that was in him, in his flesh, his human body, for the world of mankind. And having thus never sinned, having proven himself incorruptible before God even under severe sufferings, Jesus brought life and incorruption to light for mankind. (2 Timothy 1:10) He condemned sin in the flesh, proving that a sinless man could remain obedient. (Romans 8:3) In his obedience, he, as a human being, was brought to perfection, to completion, thus putting on incorruption (having proven himself incorruptible), as Adam could have done had Adam remained obedient. By his obedience to the only true God, Jesus thus conquered, and thus, as a human, no death could claim any hold on him. However, Jesus willingly gave up his human soul — his human sentiency — to pay the price for Adam and the dying race in Adam, so that his soul — his sentiency — was put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit. (1 Peter 3:18)  In receiving his soul back from realm of death, from the Bible hell, Jesus’ soul was no longer with the glory of a physical, terrestrial, earthy, body, but it was then a with the glory of a celestial, spiritual, heavenly body. Jesus, by his taking Adam’s place, has become the “last Adam” — the last father — the human race, so that his is now, not an earthly father, but the “life-giving spirit” from heaven.

Jesus gave himself as human in sacrifice, he did not give himself as THEOS in sacrifice.  The ransom sacrifice of Jesus only buys back what Adam lost. Adam lost sinless life on earth, in a physical, terrestrial body; Adam did not lose life in the heavens. It was only due to his sin, that Adam fell short of the glory of God. Before he sinned, therefore, his flesh did not fall short of that glory. There is nothing at all in the Bible that indicates that life in the heavens was ever offered to Adam. Thus, what Jesus gave to purchase mankind was not a spiritual, a celestial glory, but rather an earthly, fleshly glory. By offering in sacrifice that crown of glory, which is a little lower than the angels, Jesus therefore tasted death for every man. — Hebrews 2:9.

Of course, the name “Jesus” was first applied to Jesus when he became a Man. Before he became a man, Jesus tells us of his existence with the only true God, and that he had a glory at that time which he did not have as a man. Thus he prayed that the glory that he formerly had should be given to him again. (John 17:1,3,5) John speaks of that glory by using the Greek word “theos.” (John 1:1,2) Theos does usually mean “God,” but it does not always mean so. The Hebrews many times used the Hebrew words that are translated into Greek by the word “theos” to mean might, power, strength, etc. Jesus applied this general meaning to theos when he spoke of the sons of God as THEOI, thereby rendering the Hebrew ELOHIM by the Greek word THEOI (a plural of THEOS –  As a man, Jesus had the full glory of man, since he never fell short of that glory due to sin, for in him was no sin. That glory, however, is a glory a little lower than the angels. (Psalm 8:5; Hebrews 2:7) Thus his human crown of glory was never marred with sin, as is true of the descendants of Adam. — Romans 3:23; 5:12-19.

Jesus was put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit. (1 Peter 3:18) If Jesus is still flesh, then he never sacrificed his flesh; thus there has never been any offering made to God for our sins. — John 6:51; Ephesians 5:2; Hebrews 9:14; 10:10,12.

Jesus is no longer in the “days of his flesh.” (Hebrews 5:7) He now has a celestial (heavenly), spiritual body, having become the life-giving spirit from heaven. — 1 Corinthians 15:40,44,45,47.

Thus, Jesus never had two different “natures” (glories) at once. Jesus, before he became flesh, did not have the crown of human being, a little lower than the angels, but he did have the a celestial glory alongside the only true God. When he became flesh, he did not have the glory that he formerly had, but he did have the terrestrial glory of a human being, a little lower than the angels. Having sacrificed the glory of being a human being, a little lower than the angels, Jesus now is again with the celestial glory. Jesus never possessed both glories at once, thus the doctrine of Jesus’ having dual natures/beings at once is not in the Bible.

To Be Continued in Part 2

In response to:

http://neoreformation.wordpress.com/2008/09/09/the-definition-of-jesus/

Jesus is not His God in the Flesh

It is sad to see that the son of Yahweh, the one anointed by Yahweh (Isaiah 61:1),  is exalted to the being of Yahweh who anointed him. This is done by trinitarians, believers in the oneness doctrine, as well as some others, such as Mormons (Latter-Day Saints). Such an exaltation actually destroys the basis of the atoning sacrifice of Jesus as revealed in the scriptures.
http://atonement.reslight.net

The scriptures no where refer to Jesus as his “God in the flesh.”  The God and Father of Jesus never became flesh. Jesus, being the Logos of his God, became flesh. As the Logos, Jesus was a mighty one with his God and Father (the only true God — John 17:3) before the world of mankind was made. (John 17:5) John never declared the Logos of the only true God to be the only true God whom the Logos was with. However, by applying the word THEOS to the Logos, John was declaring that the Logos “was” (past tense) mighty with his God before the beginning of the world of mankind. This is in keeping with the usage of forms of the Hebrew word “EL” when used of others than Yahweh or false gods. This can be seen by how the King James Version renders forms of EL in the following verses: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Psalm 82:1 (mighty); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). Likewise, in John 1:1, the Logos of God was mighty before he became flesh. He had the glory and might of celestial body (substance) that he did not have while in the days of his flesh. — John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 5:7.
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/08/john-112-word-was-mighty.html

1 John 5:7 – Biblical Oneness Vs. Trinity

1 John 5:6
This is he who came by water and blood, Jesus Christ; not with the water only, but with the water and the blood.
1 John 5:7
It is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
1 John 5:8
For there are three who bear witness, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood; and the three agree as one. — World English translation

In the KJV, based on the so-called “Textus Receptus”, 1 John 5:7 reads:

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Most translations leave out the phrase “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” This is because these words are not found in the earlier Greek manuscripts, and more than likely were added later.

At any rate, even as it is given in the Textus Receptus, there is nothing there about three persons in one God (theos), or three persons in one being (ousia). The Greek word for “one” in 1 John 5:7 of the Textus Receptus is the word that is usually transliterated as “hen”. It is neuter, and thus would call for a neuter designation in reference to what the three are being spoken of as “one”. For the designation to have been one as in “one God”, the Greek would call for the Greek word masculine “heis”, not the neuter “hen”. This is shown in 1 Corinthians 8:6, where the Greek has “heis theos” (one God). Likewise, if the thought should be one being, then the Greek would call for the Greek word “mia”, not the Greek word “hen”. This is shown in the trinitarian phrases, “”treis hypostaseis en mia ousia”, (“three persons in one substance”), or “mia ousia, treis hypostaseis” (“One essence in three persons”).

The neuter designation is also indicated on 1 John 5:8, which reads in the King James Version:

And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one (Greek, hen).

Thus the oneness being spoken of is a oneness of “agreement,” not of being “one God”, or of “one being”.

This is the same kind of oneness that Jesus prayed for his followers to have with himself and his God:

that they may be one, even as we are. — John 17:11.

that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us. — John 17:21.

Nor does the latter scripture say, as some would seem to want it to say: “that they may all be one; but not as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, and not that they also may be one in us.” Jesus is most definitely praying for the same manner of oneness that he has with his God and Father (John 10:30) be extended to include his followers.  If Jesus’ oneness with his God and Father means that Jesus is one God with his God (self-contradiction), then Jesus would actually have been praying for his followers to become one God with his Father.

Thus, 1 John 5:7, even as it reads in the Textus Receptus, says nothing about three persons in one God. Like all other scriptures presented to allegedly support the doctrine of the trinity, the trinitarian idea has to be assumed, added to, and read into what is stated. Even as it appears in the Textus Receptus, there is no reference at all to the trinity dogma.

See also:

http://reslight.wordpress.com/2007/05/28/1-john-571-john-57/

http://reslight.net/forum/index.php/topic,102.0.html

http://godandson.reslight.net/1john-5-7.html

http://clearblogs.com/jesusandhisgod/2206/John+10%3A30.html

http://reslight.net/forum/index.php/topic,236.0.html

http://godandson.reslight.net/john-10-30.html

Mark 14:61-63 – Jesus’ Claim to be the Messiah

This is Part 3 in response to:

Blog of the Good Shepherd’s Question and Answer: The Trinity

The assertion is made that Jesus claimed to be God. If Jesus had so claimed, then it would mean, in effect, that Jesus was claiming to be his God who sent Jesus.

This claim is alleged to have support from Jesus’ words recorded at Mark 14:61-63:

Mark 14:61 – But he was silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?”
Mark 14:62 – And Jesus said, “I am; and you will see the Son of man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
Mark 14:63 – And the high priest tore his garments, and said, “Why do we still need witnesses? — Revised Standard Version.

The question was asked of Jesus if he was the Messiah, the Anointed One of Yahweh, the Son of the Yahweh; the high priest did not ask Jesus if the he was the anointer of Messiah.  Jesus responded that he  was indeed the anointed one of Yahweh, and that the time was to come when they would see the Son of the Man (the son of the man David) seated at the right hand of Yahweh (Dunamis – Power – has evidently been substituted here for the holy name).  Jesus answered this by referring to Psalm 110:1, where we read:

Yahweh says to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet.”

It should be very obvious that Jesus was claiming to be, not Yahweh, but the one who was to sit at the right hand of Yahweh.

Nor by saying “I am” was Jesus proclaiming himself to be Yahweh. In answer the question, he was saying “I am” the messiah, the one anointed by Yahweh. In the prophetic statement of Isaiah 61:1, Jesus is depicted as saying “Yahweh has anointed me,” that is, “Yahweh is the One who has made me Christ, Messiah.”  This was all that Jesus was affirming when he said “I am”. — See also Psalm 45:7; Acts 2:36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9.

What we do not find at all anything that even implies that Jesus was claiming to the only true God whom he claimed had sent him. — John 17:1,3.

The high priest, believing that Jesus as a sinner making himself out to be the promised one was thus so angry at that he tore is garments, and proclaimed Jesus guilty of blasphemy. Not one word is said in any of the verses about Jesus’ allegedly claiming to his God. Such a thought has to be assumed, added to, and read into what Jesus said.

Nor is there anything special about Jesus’ saying “I am” in answering the affirmative to question that there is for me or you or anyone else who might do the same.  If someone asks Joe, who is a plumber, if he is a plumber, and he answers by saying “I am,” Joe is not saying that he is Yahweh.

For more information on Jesus’ “I am” statements, see:

http://godandson.reslight.net/i-am.html

http://reslight.net/forum/index.php/topic,304.0.html

Philippians 3:20,21 and Jesus’ Ability

Philippians 3:20 – For our citizenship is in heaven, from where we also wait for a Savior, the Lord, Jesus Christ;
Philippians 3:21 – who will change the body of our humiliation to be conformed to the body of his glory, according to the working whereby he is able even to subject all things to himself.

Some trinitarians point to Philippians 3:20,21 as an alleged proof that Jesus is omnipotent, and claim thus that Jesus the Most High Yahweh Himself. Evidently, the thought that these trinitarians would wish for us to add to and read into what is stated is that since Jesus is able to subject all things to himself, then Jesus is omnipotent.

Actually, there is nothing here that says that Jesus is the Amighty Yahweh, or that Jesus is the source of his own power. Yahweh has certainly subjected all things to Jesus, but the power of being the Most High is not given to Jesus, since the Most High is the One who subjects all things to Jesus. — 1 Corinthians 15:27.

The fact that all the power that Jesus possesses is given to him shows that Jesus is not the source of his own power, and that he is not the Almighty. — Deuteronomy 18:18; Isaiah 11:2,3; 61:1-3; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; John 3:34,35; 5:30;  6:38; 8:42; 12:49;  13:3; 14:10; Acts 4:27; 10:38; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 3:22.

Additionally, if the fact that Jesus received his power and authority from another should mean that Jesus is omnipotent, then it would also indicate that before Jesus received his power he was not omnipotent, which would lead one to wonder how such could be, since omnipotence implies the source of all power. And, notice, the scripture does speak of a process of subjecting all things to Jesus, which also indicates that Jesus is not the Most High, since the Most High does not have any need of receiving authority or power to subject all things to Himself, since he is innately the “possessor of heaven and earth”.  — Genesis 14:22; Isaiah 40:22.

Furthermore, the scriptures show that the source of the power that brings about the subjection of all things under the feet of Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah), the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15; Psalm 110:1; Hebrews 10:12,13), who is also the only true God who sent Jesus (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13; Hebrews 1:1,2), and who is also the God and Father of Jesus.  — 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3; Colossians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.

No, nothing in any of these scriptures mean that Jesus is the Most High, or that Jesus is the source of his own power and authority.

Ephesians 3:20 and Jesus’ Power

Ephesians 3:20 – Now to him who is able to do exceedingly abundantly above all that we ask or think, according to the power that works in us.

What some trinitarians wish for one to think concerning this scripture is, first, that “him” refers to Jesus, and then they would like for us to add to and read into the rest of the scripture that Jesus is being described as omnipotent, being the Most High, the Almighty.

Actually, one has to remove the scripture from its context in order to have “him” refer to Jesus. The context shows that “him” is referring to the God and Father of Jesus.

One trinitarian remarks concerning this verse: “Ephesians 3:20, 21 makes no direct claim even to God, and could also certainly equally be referring to Christ who gives us power (John 1:12), and the Holy Ghost who sanctifies us by His power. (Titus 3:5, Romans 15:13)” It is certainly not true that Ephesians 3:20,21 makes no direct claim to God, for Paul is speaking of the “Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ”. (Ephesians 3:14) It is true that God Almighty has given to Jesus power which he imparts to us, thus God works in Christ to provide this power. Titus 3:5 refers to the use of God’s personal power, his holy spirit to produce the new birth. Romans 15:13 refers to our being filled with all joy and peace in believing, that we may abound in the hope by means of the power of God’s holy spirit.

Returning to Ephesians 3:20,21, we read that “to him [God] be the glory in [by means of, through] the assembly and in [by means of, through] Christ Jesus”. Please note the One to whom the glory is being given is distinguished both from the church and Christ Jesus, thus it is very clear that “to him” is not speaking of either Jesus Christ even as it is not speaking of the church.

However, suppose that Ephesians 3:20 did include Jesus; would that mean that Jesus was the Almighty, the Most High of the universe? Absolutely not! All power and authority that Jesus has received, he has received from the Almighty, the only Most High. (Deuteronomy 18:18; Isaiah 11:2,3; 61:1-3; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; John 3:34,35; 5:30;  6:38; 8:42; 12:49;  13:3; 14:10; Acts 4:27; 10:38; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 3:22) This, of course, excludes the quality of being the Most High, as  the apostle Paul shows.  (1 Corinthians 15:27) Jesus is not, never has been, nor will he ever be, the Most High of the whole universe.

Revelation 2:23 – He who searches hearts

I will kill her children with Death, and all the assemblies will know that I am he who searches the minds and hearts. I will give to each one of you according to your deeds. — Revelation 2:23

Then hear in heaven, your dwelling-place, and forgive, and do, and render to every man according to all his ways, whose heart you know; (for you, even you only, know the hearts of all the children of men;) — 1 Kings 8:39

Jeremiah 11:20 - But, Yahweh of Hosts, who judge righteously, who try the heart and the mind, I shall see your vengeance on them; for to you have I revealed my cause.

The above scriptures are sometimes cited as proof that Jesus is his God, especially since it stated in 1 Kings 8:39 that only Yahweh knows the hearts of all the children of men, and since Jesus says that he is the one who searches the hearts of men, then this is offered as proof that Jesus is Yahweh.

However, if this is so, then Yahweh has another who is the God of Yahweh, since in Revelation 3:12, Jesus, the one who is speaking in Revelation 2:23, speaks of another as “my God”. So if the one speaking in Revelation 1:18 through Revelation 3:22 is Yahweh, the only Most High, then the only Most High has one who the Supreme Being over the only Most High, which is self-contradictory.

Rather than assuming the self-contradiction, we should examine the scriptures closely so that the scriptures may be seen to be harmonized without adding the assumption that Jesus is Yahweh.

When Solomon spoke the words as recorded 1 Kings 8:39, the word that he used, which is translated as “alone” or “only”, is a form of the Hebrew “bad” (Strong’s Hebrew #905). This word does not, of itself, take on the meaning of total exclusivity that our trinitarian neighbors would like for us to apply to it in 1 Kings 8:39.

For instance, in Job 1:15,16,17,19, the servants of Job a each express their being alone. However ,the context shows a relationship regarding that aloneness. They were not each saying that they alone, of all people in the universe, had escaped, rather their aloneness was in relationship to the others who were destroyed in whatever destruction was being referred to.

Likewise, in 1 Kings 8:39, Solomon is contrasting Yahweh with the rulers and judges of Israel — men on earth; only Yahweh — not the judges/rulers on earth — could know the hearts of men.

However, even assigning it the exclusivity as related to the universe at that time, Solomon did not say that Yahweh could not grant to another the ability to search the hearts of men. Indeed, this is exactly what the scriptures tell us that the Most High did. Jesus stated that his ability to judge had been given to him by his God and Father.  (John 5:22) And Jesus said that he judged in accordance with the will of the only true God who had sent him. (John 5:30; 17:1,3) Thus, when Yahweh comes to judge the world (Psalm 96:13; 98:9), he comes to judge the world by means of the one whom he has appointed, as we read in Acts 17:31. Seeing then, that Jesus has been given all power in heaven and earth (Matthew 28:19 — excluding the power of being the Most High — 1 Corinthians 15:27) to carry out such judgment, he would of necessity need the power to know and read the hearts of men.  Thus, the plenitude of might has been given to him bodily, so that he may fulfill his role as “the head of all principality and power.” — Colossians 2:9,10.

However, the fact that all of the power and authority has been given to Jesus does not mean that Jesus became Yahweh, the only Most High.

John 1:1 – What Beginning?

John 1:1 – In the beginning

It is usually thought that “the beginning” in John 1:1 refers to the beginning of absolutely all creation. However, the scriptures indicate otherwise. Notice how “the beginning” is used in other scriptures, and how it is used regarding the human world, not of the angels.  — Matthew 19:4,8; 24:21; Mark 10:6; 13:19; John 8:44; 2 Peter 3:4.

“The beginning” refers not to the beginning of the universe, nor the beginning of the spirit world where the angels live, but the “beginning” of the world of mankind into which Jesus came. It was this “world” that was made through Jesus, before the creation of which Jesus was with his God and Father. (John 1:10; 17:1,3,5; 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3) The Greek word for “world” is usually transliterated as “kosmos.” This word, also, usually refers, not to the angels, nor even to the physical universe as such, but to the world of mankind, as can be seen by its usage throughout the New Testament.
http://studylight.org/lex/grk/view.cgi?number=2889

The words related to creation in the New Testament are almost always used in relation to the world of mankind, and not regarding the invisible heavens, or even the physical universe. For instance, that creation which has been subjected to futility, and which is to be released therefrom is the world of mankind.  –Romans 8:19-22.

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/NewTestamentGreek/grk.cgi?number=2937

Jesus is never called the creator the Bible, but rather, the Bible shows that all in this world was made “through” Jesus. (John 1:3,10) Nothing in this world was made without Jesus. Jesus identified his God and Father as the Creator. (Mark 10:6; 13:19) John simply identifies “the Word” as the agent that God used in that creation.

For further study on this, see:

The Beginning and the Creation of the World

In The Beginning

The Six Days of Creation

Is Jesus the Creator?

The Word of God

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