Category Archives: John

John 10:30 – The Son is One With His Father

John 10:30 – I and my Father are one.

Jesus and the only true God, whom Jesus was with before the world (kosmos) of mankind was made (John 1:1,10; 17:1,3,5), are ‘one.’ Jesus was not saying that he and the only true God whom he was with are one only true God.

In the Greek, the Greek form that Jesus used for the adjective “one” is transliterated as “hen” [which is neuter]. If Jesus had meant that he and the only true God whom he had been with are “one God,” he would not have used the Greek form “hen”, but he would have used the Greek form “heis” (masculine), as Paul does in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Since the Greek word Theos is masculine, it requires the masculine form of the adjective, not the neuter form. Nor is speaking of substance, as trinitarians use that term, “three persons in one being.” If Jesus was talking about “one being,” he would not have used the Greek form “hen”, but rather he would have used the Greek form, “mia,” as in the trinitarian statement: treis hypostaseis en mia ousia (three persons in one being). Since “ousia” is feminine, it requires the feminine form of the adjective, not the neuter form. Thus, when Jesus said that he and the only true God are “one”, he was neither speaking of “one God” nor “one substance.”

Nevertheless, we find further in the book of John where Jesus uses the Greek form “hen” several times:

Jesus prays for his followers to be one [hen], just as he is with his God and Father. — John 17:11.

Jesus prays that his followers may all be one [hen], just as he is one with his God and Father. — John 17:21.

Jesus prays that his followers may be one [hen] in himself and his Father, just as he is with his God and Father. — John 17:21.

Jesus prays that his followers may one [hen], just as he is one with his God and Father. — John 17:22.

It should be obvious that Jesus was not praying that his followers become one “God” with him and his Father, nor is he praying that they become “one substance” with him and his Father. He is speaking in terms of unity, agreement. Likewise, when Jesus said that he and the only true God (John 17:1,3) are one, he is speaking of agreement. There is nothing in John 10:30 that means that Jesus was claiming to be the only true God.

For more regarding John 10:30, see:
Studies Pertaining to John 10:33

Regarding John 10:33, see:
The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus

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John 1:1 – What Beginning?

John 1:1 – In the beginning

It is usually thought that “the beginning” in John 1:1 refers to the beginning of absolutely all creation. However, the scriptures indicate otherwise. Notice how “the beginning” is used in other scriptures, and how it is used regarding the human world, not of the angels.  — Matthew 19:4,8; 24:21; Mark 10:6; 13:19; John 8:44; 2 Peter 3:4.

“The beginning” refers not to the beginning of the universe, nor the beginning of the spirit world where the angels live, but the “beginning” of the world of mankind into which Jesus came. It was this “world” that was made through Jesus, before the creation of which Jesus was with his God and Father. (John 1:10; 17:1,3,5; 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; 1 Peter 1:3) The Greek word for “world” is usually transliterated as “kosmos.” This word, also, usually refers, not to the angels, nor even to the physical universe as such, but to the world of mankind, as can be seen by its usage throughout the New Testament.
http://studylight.org/lex/grk/view.cgi?number=2889

The words related to creation in the New Testament are almost always used in relation to the world of mankind, and not regarding the invisible heavens, or even the physical universe. For instance, that creation which has been subjected to futility, and which is to be released therefrom is the world of mankind.  –Romans 8:19-22.

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/NewTestamentGreek/grk.cgi?number=2937

Jesus is never called the creator the Bible, but rather, the Bible shows that all in this world was made “through” Jesus. (John 1:3,10) Nothing in this world was made without Jesus. Jesus identified his God and Father as the Creator. (Mark 10:6; 13:19) John simply identifies “the Word” as the agent that God used in that creation.

For further study on this, see:

The Beginning and the Creation of the World

In The Beginning

The Six Days of Creation

Is Jesus the Creator?

The Word of God

Related Books

John 5:23 – The Honor Due Jesus

John 5:22 For neither does the Father judge any man, but he has given all judgment to the Son,
John 5:23 that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father. He who doesn’t honor the Son doesn’t honor the Father who sent him.

The thought is evidently often assumed, added to and read into John 5:23 that Jesus is equal to his God and Father in being, or that in some way the worship and/or glory that is only belongs his God and Father is also given/attributed to the Son of Yahweh, and then, from this, it is further to be assumed that Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah). Actually, Jesus did not mention “worship” at all, but he does speak of “honor”. Thus, the idea of “worship” has to be assumed, added to and read into Jesus’ words.

The “honor” spoken of in John 5:23 is the honor of being judge, not of being worshiped as the Most High. This honor is given as a result of the fact that all judgment — the authority to judge — has been given to Jesus from the God and Father of Jesus. Thus the God and Father of Jesus comes to judge the world by means of the one ordained. — Psalm 96:13; 98:9; Acts 17:31.

Indeed,  if is is assumed that Jesus was saying in the words recorded in John 5:23 that Jesus is Yawheh, such would mean that Jesus was not Yahweh until he received the ordination of judge. The fact that Jesus is given this judgment (authority to judge), and the honor of being such a judge as the representative of Yahweh, does not mean that Jesus became his God and Father due to his receiving this honor of judging the world. Actually, it is in respects to his being the one ordained by the only true God as Judge that Jesus is given honor even as they honor the God and Father of Jesus. In this sense, as judge, Jesus is equal to his God and Father, since Jesus has been ordained as judge of all (excluding, of course, the Most High who has given this authority to his son — 1 Corinthians 15:27), but this does not mean that Jesus has received the glory that only belongs to his God and Father, or that Jesus became, in being, Most High due to his being ordained as Judge by the Most High. Jesus is given such authority because he has proven that he will always perform the will of the only true God. — John 8:29; Hebrews 12:2.

See also:
http://godandson.reslight.net/worshipjesus.html
http://reslight.net/forum/index.php?topic=194.0

This short study of John 5:23 is particular interest to:  Bible Students, Jehovah’s Witnesses, unitarians, believers in the trinity doctrine, believers in the oneness doctrine.

John 8:58 – Did Jesus Use the Holy Name?

The claim by many regarding John 8:58 is that Jesus was saying that his name is the holy name of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. In Greek, the words used at John 8:58 are transliterated as EGO EIMI. Actually, Jesus says nothing about claiming that his name is EHYEH (transliterated from the Masoretic text) of Exodus 3:14. The contextual discussion was concerning Jesus’ age, not his name.

Some claim that Jesus, as recorded in John 8:58, quoted the Septuagint of Exodus 3:14. However, the short form used in the Septuagint of Exdous 3:14 is transliterated as HO OHN, not EGO EIMI. The long from of Exodus 3:14 EHYEH ‘ASHER EHYEH, is rendered in the Septuagint as a sentence: “EGO EIMI HO OHN,” meaning “I am the being.” If Jesus was declaring his name to have been EHYEH, and doing so by quoting the Septuagint, then he would have said “HO OHN,” not EGO EIMI. If by saying EGO EIMI he was quoting the Septuagint, then he started a sentence that he left without its object. Actually, there is absolutely no evidence that Jesus was quoting the Septuagint in John 8:58.

Jesus was simply expressing his existence in a past tense context, that is, before Abraham was, before Abraham existed. In doing so, he used what is called by Koine Greek scholars as “the historical present.” The historical present uses a form of the present tense in a past tense context to express a past tense situation. The only place we know of where such usage in the Bible is questioned is in John 8:58, where trinitarians and some others would like it to mean there the holy name, or else that Jesus was expressing his past eternality. In all other cases that we know of, except for a few “literal” translations, translators will render the historical present usage in the Bible by using a form of the past tense in English. Only the most literal translations will use the present tense in translating the historical present usage. For instance, in Matthew 3:1, we read: “In those days, John the Baptizer came.” (World English) The word translated “came” here is actually a present tense form. Young’s Literal renders it with the archaic present tense, “cometh.” “And in those days cometh John the Baptist.” However, most translators, recognizing this as a “historical present” usage of the koine Greek, will render the word with an English past tense form.

Not all translators render John 8:58 with the present tense form of “I am.” Many do render Jesus’ words with a past tense form in English:

The New Testament Or Rather The New Covenant – S.Sharpe: “I was before Abraham”.

A Bible, A New Translation – J.Moffatt: “I existed before Abraham was born”

The New Testament in the Language of the Day – W.G.Beck: “I was before Abraham”

The Simple English Bible: “I was alive before Abraham was born”

The Twentieth Century New Testament: “before Abraham existed I was”

The New Testament in the Language of the People – C.B.Williams: “I existed before Abraham was born”

The Bible – An American Translation – E.Goodspeed: “I existed”

The Unvarnished New Testament – A.Gaus: “I have already been”

The Authentic New Testament – H.J.Schonfield: “I existed”

The Complete Gospels – R.J.Miller (Editor): “I existed”

These, and a few other translators and Greek scholars, do give recognition to the “historical past” usage of Jesus in John 8:58. In reality, it is only for the purpose of promoting the doctrine that Jesus was saying that he was Yahweh that translators have made the claim that in John 8:58, the historical present does not apply. Thus their argument becomes circular in nature when they use John 8:58 as proof that Jesus is Yahweh.

The truth is that Jesus was indeed declaring that he was in existence before Abraham, and that he was thus older than Abraham. He was, in effect, declaring his existence as a divine being (THEOS) before Abraham, at a time before he came into the world of mankind. (John 1:1,2,10) Jesus spoke of that existence in John 17:5, where speaks of a glory that he had with the only true God (John 17:3) before the world of mankind had been made, a glory that he did not then possess “in the days of his flesh.” — Hebrews 5:7.

Of course, such a claim by Jesus would be very upsetting to the Jewish leaders who were claiming that Jesus was sinner man, being possessed of a demon, etc.

Jesus, however, was not, by his words recorded in John 8:58, declaring an eternal existence before Abraham; such a thought would have to be assumed and read into what Jesus was saying. Being the firstborn creature (Colossians 1:15), there was a time that he was brought forth into existence as a living creature, and therefore a time before his being brought forth when he did not exist.

Regardless of what the “cause” the Jews promoted to kill Jesus (Mark 14:1; John 15:16,18; 10:33), the real reason why the Jews wished to kill Jesus is revealed in Matthew 21:38; 27:18; Mark 12:7; Luke 20:14; John 8:37,40,42; 10:25,32.

Some related discussions:

John 8:58 and “I am”

“I am” in John 8:58

http://tinyurl.com/john8-58

http://tinyurl.com/res-ehyeh

CLICK HERE for a list of books related to the trinity.
Our recommendation of these books does not mean that we agree with all the conclusions and opinions presented by the authors.

Some sites that claim that Jesus refers to himself by use of the holy name in John 8:58 (of course, we do not agree with their assumptions):

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