A question has been raised:
If Jesus is not now a man, then why was this written long after his death, burial, resurrection, and ascension?
1 Tim 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, THE MAN Christ Jesus;
The problem is that one needs to read the entire sentence, which continues into verse 6:
1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 1 Timothy 2:6 who gave himself as a ransom for all; the testimony in its own times
Paul was saying that it was the “man” Jesus who gave himself as an offsetting price – ransom. The offsetting price had to be a sinless man to correspond to Adam before Adam sinned. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22) Having given himself as a man in sacrifice to his God (Ephesians 5:2), he is no longer a man. If he is still a man, then he has not given himself in sacrifice, or else he has taken back what he had given. Either way, it would leave us without an atoning sacrifice for sin. If he is still a man, this would annul the purpose for Jesus’ coming in the flesh, that is, to give his flesh for the life of the world. (John 6:51; 1 John 1:2; 4:2,3,10) Jesus is no longer in the days of his flesh. (Hebrews 5:7) If he is, then he is still a little lower than the angels, and there has been no offering for our sin. — Hebrews 2:9.