Tag Archives: Jesus is not God

John 10:30 – The Son is One With His Father

John 10:30 – I and my Father are one.

Jesus and the only true God, whom Jesus was with before the world (kosmos) of mankind was made (John 1:1,10; 17:1,3,5), are ‘one.’ Jesus was not saying that he and the only true God whom he was with are one only true God.

In the Greek, the Greek form that Jesus used for the adjective “one” is transliterated as “hen” [which is neuter]. If Jesus had meant that he and the only true God whom he had been with are “one God,” he would not have used the Greek form “hen”, but he would have used the Greek form “heis” (masculine), as Paul does in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Since the Greek word Theos is masculine, it requires the masculine form of the adjective, not the neuter form. Nor is speaking of substance, as trinitarians use that term, “three persons in one being.” If Jesus was talking about “one being,” he would not have used the Greek form “hen”, but rather he would have used the Greek form, “mia,” as in the trinitarian statement: treis hypostaseis en mia ousia (three persons in one being). Since “ousia” is feminine, it requires the feminine form of the adjective, not the neuter form. Thus, when Jesus said that he and the only true God are “one”, he was neither speaking of “one God” nor “one substance.”

Nevertheless, we find further in the book of John where Jesus uses the Greek form “hen” several times:

Jesus prays for his followers to be one [hen], just as he is with his God and Father. — John 17:11.

Jesus prays that his followers may all be one [hen], just as he is one with his God and Father. — John 17:21.

Jesus prays that his followers may be one [hen] in himself and his Father, just as he is with his God and Father. — John 17:21.

Jesus prays that his followers may one [hen], just as he is one with his God and Father. — John 17:22.

It should be obvious that Jesus was not praying that his followers become one “God” with him and his Father, nor is he praying that they become “one substance” with him and his Father. He is speaking in terms of unity, agreement. Likewise, when Jesus said that he and the only true God (John 17:1,3) are one, he is speaking of agreement. There is nothing in John 10:30 that means that Jesus was claiming to be the only true God.

For more regarding John 10:30, see:
Studies Pertaining to John 10:33

Regarding John 10:33, see:
The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus

Jesus is not His God in the Flesh

It is sad to see that the son of Yahweh, the one anointed by Yahweh (Isaiah 61:1),  is exalted to the being of Yahweh who anointed him. This is done by trinitarians, believers in the oneness doctrine, as well as some others, such as Mormons (Latter-Day Saints). Such an exaltation actually destroys the basis of the atoning sacrifice of Jesus as revealed in the scriptures.
http://atonement.reslight.net

The scriptures no where refer to Jesus as his “God in the flesh.”  The God and Father of Jesus never became flesh. Jesus, being the Logos of his God, became flesh. As the Logos, Jesus was a mighty one with his God and Father (the only true God — John 17:3) before the world of mankind was made. (John 17:5) John never declared the Logos of the only true God to be the only true God whom the Logos was with. However, by applying the word THEOS to the Logos, John was declaring that the Logos “was” (past tense) mighty with his God before the beginning of the world of mankind. This is in keeping with the usage of forms of the Hebrew word “EL” when used of others than Yahweh or false gods. This can be seen by how the King James Version renders forms of EL in the following verses: Genesis 23:6 (mighty); Genesis 30:8 (mighty); Genesis 31:29 (power); Deuteronomy 28:32 (might); 1 Samuel 14:15 (great); Nehemiah 5:5 (power); Psalm 8:5 (angels); Psalm 36:6 (great); Psalm 82:1 (mighty); Proverbs 3:27 (power); Psalm 29:1 (mighty); Ezekiel 32:21 (strong); Jonah 3:3 (exceeding). Likewise, in John 1:1, the Logos of God was mighty before he became flesh. He had the glory and might of celestial body (substance) that he did not have while in the days of his flesh. — John 17:5; 1 Corinthians 15:40; Hebrews 5:7.
http://notrinity.blogspot.com/2008/08/john-112-word-was-mighty.html

1 John 5:7 – Biblical Oneness Vs. Trinitarian Dogma

1 John 5:6
This is he who came by water and blood, Jesus Christ; not with the water only, but with the water and the blood.
1 John 5:7
It is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
1 John 5:8
For there are three who bear witness, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood; and the three agree as one. — World English translation

In the KJV, based on the so-called “Textus Receptus”, 1 John 5:7 reads:

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Most translations leave out the phrase “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” This is because these words are not found in the earlier Greek manuscripts, and more than likely were added later.

At any rate, even as it is given in the Textus Receptus, there is nothing there about three persons in one God (theos), or three persons in one being (ousia). The Greek word for “one” in 1 John 5:7 of the Textus Receptus is the word that is usually transliterated as “hen”. It is neuter, and thus would call for a neuter designation in reference to what the three are being spoken of as “one”. For the designation to have been one as in “one God”, the Greek would call for the Greek word masculine “heis”, not the neuter “hen”. This is shown in 1 Corinthians 8:6, where the Greek has “heis theos” (one God). Likewise, if the thought should be one being, then the Greek would call for the Greek word “mia”, not the Greek word “hen”. This is shown in the trinitarian phrases, “”treis hypostaseis en mia ousia”, (“three persons in one substance”), or “mia ousia, treis hypostaseis” (“One essence in three persons”).

The neuter designation is also indicated on 1 John 5:8, which reads in the King James Version:

And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one (Greek, hen).

Thus the oneness being spoken of is a oneness of “agreement,” not of being “one God”, or of “one being”.

This is the same kind of oneness that Jesus prayed for his followers to have with himself and his God:

that they may be one, even as we are. — John 17:11.

that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us. — John 17:21.

Nor does the latter scripture say, as some would seem to want it to say: “that they may all be one; but not as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, and not that they also may be one in us.” Jesus is most definitely praying for the same manner of oneness that he has with his God and Father (John 10:30) be extended to include his followers. If Jesus’ oneness with his God and Father means that Jesus is one God with his God (self-contradiction), then Jesus would actually have been praying for his followers to become one God with his Father.

Thus, 1 John 5:7, even as it reads in the Textus Receptus, says nothing about three persons in one God. Like all other scriptures presented to allegedly support the doctrine of the trinity, the trinitarian idea has to be assumed, added to, and read into what is stated. Even as it appears in the Textus Receptus, there is no reference at all to the trinity dogma.

See also:

Mark 14:61-63 – Jesus’ Claim to be the Messiah

This is Part 3 in response to:

Blog of the Good Shepherd’s Question and Answer: The Trinity

The assertion is made that Jesus claimed to be God. If Jesus had so claimed, then it would mean, in effect, that Jesus was claiming to be his God who sent Jesus.

This claim is alleged to have support from Jesus’ words recorded at Mark 14:61-63:

Mark 14:61 – But he was silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?”
Mark 14:62 – And Jesus said, “I am; and you will see the Son of man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
Mark 14:63 – And the high priest tore his garments, and said, “Why do we still need witnesses? — Revised Standard Version.

The question was asked of Jesus if he was the Messiah, the Anointed One of Yahweh, the Son of the Yahweh; the high priest did not ask Jesus if the he was the anointer of Messiah.  Jesus responded that he  was indeed the anointed one of Yahweh, and that the time was to come when they would see the Son of the Man (the son of the man David) seated at the right hand of Yahweh (Dunamis – Power – has evidently been substituted here for the holy name).  Jesus answered this by referring to Psalm 110:1, where we read:

Yahweh says to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet.”

It should be very obvious that Jesus was claiming to be, not Yahweh, but the one who was to sit at the right hand of Yahweh.

Nor by saying “I am” was Jesus proclaiming himself to be Yahweh. In answer the question, he was saying “I am” the messiah, the one anointed by Yahweh. In the prophetic statement of Isaiah 61:1, Jesus is depicted as saying “Yahweh has anointed me,” that is, “Yahweh is the One who has made me Christ, Messiah.”  This was all that Jesus was affirming when he said “I am”. — See also Psalm 45:7; Acts 2:36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9.

What we do not find at all anything that even implies that Jesus was claiming to the only true God whom he claimed had sent him. — John 17:1,3.

The high priest, believing that Jesus as a sinner making himself out to be the promised one was thus so angry at that he tore is garments, and proclaimed Jesus guilty of blasphemy. Not one word is said in any of the verses about Jesus’ allegedly claiming to his God. Such a thought has to be assumed, added to, and read into what Jesus said.

Nor is there anything special about Jesus’ saying “I am” in answering the affirmative to question that there is for me or you or anyone else who might do the same.  If someone asks Joe, who is a plumber, if he is a plumber, and he answers by saying “I am,” Joe is not saying that he is Yahweh.

For more information on Jesus’ “I am” statements, see:

http://godandson.reslight.net/i-am.html


http://reslight.net/forum/index.php/topic,304.0.html

Philippians 3:20,21 and Jesus’ Ability

Philippians 3:20 – For our citizenship is in heaven, from where we also wait for a Savior, the Lord, Jesus Christ;
Philippians 3:21 – who will change the body of our humiliation to be conformed to the body of his glory, according to the working whereby he is able even to subject all things to himself.

Some trinitarians point to Philippians 3:20,21 as an alleged proof that Jesus is omnipotent, and claim thus that Jesus the Most High Yahweh Himself. Evidently, the thought that these trinitarians would wish for us to add to and read into what is stated is that since Jesus is able to subject all things to himself, then Jesus is omnipotent.

Actually, there is nothing here that says that Jesus is the Amighty Yahweh, or that Jesus is the source of his own power. Yahweh has certainly subjected all things to Jesus, but the power of being the Most High is not given to Jesus, since the Most High is the One who subjects all things to Jesus. — 1 Corinthians 15:27.

The fact that all the power that Jesus possesses is given to him shows that Jesus is not the source of his own power, and that he is not the Almighty. — Deuteronomy 18:18; Isaiah 11:2,3; 61:1-3; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; John 3:34,35; 5:30;  6:38; 8:42; 12:49;  13:3; 14:10; Acts 4:27; 10:38; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 3:22.

Additionally, if the fact that Jesus received his power and authority from another should mean that Jesus is omnipotent, then it would also indicate that before Jesus received his power he was not omnipotent, which would lead one to wonder how such could be, since omnipotence implies the source of all power. And, notice, the scripture does speak of a process of subjecting all things to Jesus, which also indicates that Jesus is not the Most High, since the Most High does not have any need of receiving authority or power to subject all things to Himself, since he is innately the “possessor of heaven and earth”.  — Genesis 14:22; Isaiah 40:22.

Furthermore, the scriptures show that the source of the power that brings about the subjection of all things under the feet of Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah), the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15; Psalm 110:1; Hebrews 10:12,13), who is also the only true God who sent Jesus (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13; Hebrews 1:1,2), and who is also the God and Father of Jesus.  — 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3; Colossians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.

No, nothing in any of these scriptures mean that Jesus is the Most High, or that Jesus is the source of his own power and authority.