Tag Archives: Jesus is not Yahweh

John 10:30 – The Son is One With His Father

John 10:30 – I and my Father are one.

Jesus and the only true God, whom Jesus was with before the world (kosmos) of mankind was made (John 1:1,10; 17:1,3,5), are ‘one.’ Jesus was not saying that he and the only true God whom he was with are one only true God.

In the Greek, the Greek form that Jesus used for the adjective “one” is transliterated as “hen” [which is neuter]. If Jesus had meant that he and the only true God whom he had been with are “one God,” he would not have used the Greek form “hen”, but he would have used the Greek form “heis” (masculine), as Paul does in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Since the Greek word Theos is masculine, it requires the masculine form of the adjective, not the neuter form. Nor is speaking of substance, as trinitarians use that term, “three persons in one being.” If Jesus was talking about “one being,” he would not have used the Greek form “hen”, but rather he would have used the Greek form, “mia,” as in the trinitarian statement: treis hypostaseis en mia ousia (three persons in one being). Since “ousia” is feminine, it requires the feminine form of the adjective, not the neuter form. Thus, when Jesus said that he and the only true God are “one”, he was neither speaking of “one God” nor “one substance.”

Nevertheless, we find further in the book of John where Jesus uses the Greek form “hen” several times:

Jesus prays for his followers to be one [hen], just as he is with his God and Father. — John 17:11.

Jesus prays that his followers may all be one [hen], just as he is one with his God and Father. — John 17:21.

Jesus prays that his followers may be one [hen] in himself and his Father, just as he is with his God and Father. — John 17:21.

Jesus prays that his followers may one [hen], just as he is one with his God and Father. — John 17:22.

It should be obvious that Jesus was not praying that his followers become one “God” with him and his Father, nor is he praying that they become “one substance” with him and his Father. He is speaking in terms of unity, agreement. Likewise, when Jesus said that he and the only true God (John 17:1,3) are one, he is speaking of agreement. There is nothing in John 10:30 that means that Jesus was claiming to be the only true God.

For more regarding John 10:30, see:
Studies Pertaining to John 10:33

Regarding John 10:33, see:
The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus

Isaiah 7:14 – Immanuel – God with Us

Isaiah 7:14 – Therefore [Jehovah]* Himself giveth to you a sign, Lo, the Virgin is conceiving, And is bringing forth a son, And hath called his name Immanuel. (Note: The Great Isaiah Scroll has the holy name in Isaiah 7:14)

Isaiah 8:8 – and it shall sweep onward into Judah; it shall overflow and pass through; it shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of its wings shall fill the breadth of your land, Immanuel.

Matthew 1:23 – “Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son. They shall call his name Immanuel;” which is, being interpreted, “God with us.”

This scripture is evidently cited by trinitarians and oneness believers because it has the name, Immanuel, and since Matthew applies the statement in Isaiah 7:14 to Jesus, and since the name Immanuel means “God is with us”, it is being imagined and assumed that this is proof that Jesus is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the only Most High. Trinitarians would further imagine and assume that two persons of their alleged triune God are being spoken of in Isaiah 7:14, one who is the alleged “first person” of their alleged triune God, and another who is the alleged “second person” of their alleged triune God.

Of course, simply bearing the name expressing that “God is with us” does not mean that the one bearing that name is the God that the name declares is with us. The bearer of any name in which God is declared as being or doing something does not mean that the bearer of the name is God who is being declared by those names as being or doing whatever is being spoken of. Many in the Old Testament bore names that declared God as being or doing something, and no one thinks to apply the meaning of the name to the bearer so as to make the bearer of the name into God who is declared to as being or doing by the name.

In other words, for example, the name “Jehu” means “He is Jah” or “Jah is He.” Does that mean the man who bore the name Jehu is, in reality, Jehovah? Likewise with the name Eliathath, which means “God has come”. Are we to think that Eliathath is God Almighty because of the name given to him? We can look at another name, “Elnathan”, meaning “God has given”; does it mean that the bearer of this name is God who does the giving? When Abraham called the place where he sacrificed the ram “Jehovah-jireh”, meaning “Jehovah will provide”, was he saying that the place was Jehovah Himself? Did the name Daniel, meaning “Judgment of God”, mean that Daniel was God?

The name “Immanuel”, however, is not the personal name of Jesus, for the scriptures as translated by most translations show that personal name in English as “Jesus”, meaning “Jah saves” or “Jah is savior”. The name “Jesus” attributes salvation to the God and Father of Jesus. Likewise, the name “Immanuel” is a titular name, not the personal name of the one being spoken of being born.

Why should Immanuel be a name given to Jesus? Because by means of Jesus, God is with his people. How so? The scriptures tell us in Acts 10:38; “How God anointed him with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him.” Here “God” is depicted as one doing the anointing of Jesus, and is said to be with Jesus. (See Isaiah 61:1) If God was with Jesus, then, through Jesus, God was with his people. Bearing the titular name Immanuel does not mean that Jesus was his God who was with Jesus.

Additionally, Isaiah 8:8 is speaking of Sennacherib, a king of Assyria, would “pass through Judah.” This prophecy refers to
King Sennacherib, for Tiglath-pileser, who slew Pekah and Rezin, did not pass through Judah. Through Isaiah, the people of Judah were told that Jehovah would take care of them and they were not even to defend themselves. The army of Sennacherib did come to Judah. After prophesying about Tiglath-pileser, Isaiah abruptly starts to prophesy about Sennacherib and uses the same language. Sennacherib would overflow into Judah; in fact, he flooded the land almost to the capital (“the neck”), and there he had his spokesman call up to the people, “You had better give in and submit peaceably because your God is not able to defend you.” Isaiah counseled the people not to worry, for God would fight the battle. King Sennacherib was likened to a tremendous bird such as an eagle or a vulture. So large was the bird that “the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy [Immanuel’s] land.” To those hearing the prophecy in Isaiah’s day, “Immanuel” was Judah. The land of Judah was pictured as a person, the neck or head being Jerusalem. The name “Immanuel” depicts how God was with Judah. Judah was delivered from Sennacherib not by battle instruments but by Jehovah’s destroying angel in one night. Thus God was with Judah in that God fought for Judah. Thus, the name Immanuel as used in Isaiah 8:8 is speaking of God being with his people, that his favor and strength was with his people so as to deliver his people, not that God was a man dwelling amongst the people.

Outside the Bible, we cannot say for sure whether in any baby in Bible times was ever name “Immanuel” or not. We know that in later Jewish history, several have held the name Immanuel, without any thought that the bearer of the name was God Almighty.

For further study, see:
http://jesus-rlbible.com/?page_id=4866

Mark 14:61-63 – Jesus’ Claim to be the Messiah

This is Part 3 in response to:

Blog of the Good Shepherd’s Question and Answer: The Trinity

The assertion is made that Jesus claimed to be God. If Jesus had so claimed, then it would mean, in effect, that Jesus was claiming to be his God who sent Jesus.

This claim is alleged to have support from Jesus’ words recorded at Mark 14:61-63:

Mark 14:61 – But he was silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?”
Mark 14:62 – And Jesus said, “I am; and you will see the Son of man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
Mark 14:63 – And the high priest tore his garments, and said, “Why do we still need witnesses? — Revised Standard Version.

The question was asked of Jesus if he was the Messiah, the Anointed One of Yahweh, the Son of the Yahweh; the high priest did not ask Jesus if the he was the anointer of Messiah.  Jesus responded that he  was indeed the anointed one of Yahweh, and that the time was to come when they would see the Son of the Man (the son of the man David) seated at the right hand of Yahweh (Dunamis – Power – has evidently been substituted here for the holy name).  Jesus answered this by referring to Psalm 110:1, where we read:

Yahweh says to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, Until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet.”

It should be very obvious that Jesus was claiming to be, not Yahweh, but the one who was to sit at the right hand of Yahweh.

Nor by saying “I am” was Jesus proclaiming himself to be Yahweh. In answer the question, he was saying “I am” the messiah, the one anointed by Yahweh. In the prophetic statement of Isaiah 61:1, Jesus is depicted as saying “Yahweh has anointed me,” that is, “Yahweh is the One who has made me Christ, Messiah.”  This was all that Jesus was affirming when he said “I am”. — See also Psalm 45:7; Acts 2:36; 4:27; 10:38; Hebrews 1:9.

What we do not find at all anything that even implies that Jesus was claiming to the only true God whom he claimed had sent him. — John 17:1,3.

The high priest, believing that Jesus as a sinner making himself out to be the promised one was thus so angry at that he tore is garments, and proclaimed Jesus guilty of blasphemy. Not one word is said in any of the verses about Jesus’ allegedly claiming to his God. Such a thought has to be assumed, added to, and read into what Jesus said.

Nor is there anything special about Jesus’ saying “I am” in answering the affirmative to question that there is for me or you or anyone else who might do the same.  If someone asks Joe, who is a plumber, if he is a plumber, and he answers by saying “I am,” Joe is not saying that he is Yahweh.

For more information on Jesus’ “I am” statements, see:

http://godandson.reslight.net/i-am.html


http://reslight.net/forum/index.php/topic,304.0.html

Philippians 3:20,21 and Jesus’ Ability

Philippians 3:20 – For our citizenship is in heaven, from where we also wait for a Savior, the Lord, Jesus Christ;
Philippians 3:21 – who will change the body of our humiliation to be conformed to the body of his glory, according to the working whereby he is able even to subject all things to himself.

Some trinitarians point to Philippians 3:20,21 as an alleged proof that Jesus is omnipotent, and claim thus that Jesus the Most High Yahweh Himself. Evidently, the thought that these trinitarians would wish for us to add to and read into what is stated is that since Jesus is able to subject all things to himself, then Jesus is omnipotent.

Actually, there is nothing here that says that Jesus is the Amighty Yahweh, or that Jesus is the source of his own power. Yahweh has certainly subjected all things to Jesus, but the power of being the Most High is not given to Jesus, since the Most High is the One who subjects all things to Jesus. — 1 Corinthians 15:27.

The fact that all the power that Jesus possesses is given to him shows that Jesus is not the source of his own power, and that he is not the Almighty. — Deuteronomy 18:18; Isaiah 11:2,3; 61:1-3; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; John 3:34,35; 5:30;  6:38; 8:42; 12:49;  13:3; 14:10; Acts 4:27; 10:38; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 3:22.

Additionally, if the fact that Jesus received his power and authority from another should mean that Jesus is omnipotent, then it would also indicate that before Jesus received his power he was not omnipotent, which would lead one to wonder how such could be, since omnipotence implies the source of all power. And, notice, the scripture does speak of a process of subjecting all things to Jesus, which also indicates that Jesus is not the Most High, since the Most High does not have any need of receiving authority or power to subject all things to Himself, since he is innately the “possessor of heaven and earth”.  — Genesis 14:22; Isaiah 40:22.

Furthermore, the scriptures show that the source of the power that brings about the subjection of all things under the feet of Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah), the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15; Psalm 110:1; Hebrews 10:12,13), who is also the only true God who sent Jesus (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3; Acts 3:13; Hebrews 1:1,2), and who is also the God and Father of Jesus.  — 2 Corinthians 11:31; Ephesians 1:3; Colossians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.

No, nothing in any of these scriptures mean that Jesus is the Most High, or that Jesus is the source of his own power and authority.

Ephesians 3:20 and Jesus’ Power

Ephesians 3:20 – Now to him who is able to do exceedingly abundantly above all that we ask or think, according to the power that works in us.

What some trinitarians wish for one to think concerning this scripture is, first, that “him” refers to Jesus, and then they would like for us to add to and read into the rest of the scripture that Jesus is being described as omnipotent, being the Most High, the Almighty.

Actually, one has to remove the scripture from its context in order to have “him” refer to Jesus. The context shows that “him” is referring to the God and Father of Jesus.

One trinitarian remarks concerning this verse: “Ephesians 3:20, 21 makes no direct claim even to God, and could also certainly equally be referring to Christ who gives us power (John 1:12), and the Holy Ghost who sanctifies us by His power. (Titus 3:5, Romans 15:13)” It is certainly not true that Ephesians 3:20,21 makes no direct claim to God, for Paul is speaking of the “Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ”. (Ephesians 3:14) It is true that God Almighty has given to Jesus power which he imparts to us, thus God works in Christ to provide this power. Titus 3:5 refers to the use of God’s personal power, his holy spirit to produce the new birth. Romans 15:13 refers to our being filled with all joy and peace in believing, that we may abound in the hope by means of the power of God’s holy spirit.

Returning to Ephesians 3:20,21, we read that “to him [God] be the glory in [by means of, through] the assembly and in [by means of, through] Christ Jesus”. Please note the One to whom the glory is being given is distinguished both from the church and Christ Jesus, thus it is very clear that “to him” is not speaking of either Jesus Christ even as it is not speaking of the church.

However, suppose that Ephesians 3:20 did include Jesus; would that mean that Jesus was the Almighty, the Most High of the universe? Absolutely not! All power and authority that Jesus has received, he has received from the Almighty, the only Most High. (Deuteronomy 18:18; Isaiah 11:2,3; 61:1-3; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; John 3:34,35; 5:30;  6:38; 8:42; 12:49;  13:3; 14:10; Acts 4:27; 10:38; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 3:22) This, of course, excludes the quality of being the Most High, as  the apostle Paul shows.  (1 Corinthians 15:27) Jesus is not, never has been, nor will he ever be, the Most High of the whole universe.